Medicine: Prep Manual for Undergraduates

7th Edition - January 23, 2023
Imprint: Elsevier India
Authors: Aggarwal Praveen, George K. Mathew
Language: English
Paperback ISBN:
9 7 8 - 8 1 - 3 1 2 - 6 6 2 8 - 1
eBook ISBN:
9 7 8 - 8 1 - 3 1 2 - 6 6 2 9 - 8

There have been rapid advances in the field of Medicine in the last few years. This has led the authors to come out with the seventh edition of this book which is thoroughly re… Read more

Medicine: Prep Manual for Undergraduates

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There have been rapid advances in the field of Medicine in the last few years. This has led the authors to come out with the seventh edition of this book which is thoroughly revised to include up-to-date knowledge. As in previous editions, the question-answer format of the book has been retained. This book is the best-selling book in its segment and is ‘must-have’ for all the undergraduate medical students as it prepares them well for both theory and practical examinations. Additionally, it is also useful for the dentistry and nursing students.

Cover image
Title page
Disclaimer
Table of Contents
Copyright
Dedication
Preface to the seventh edition
Preface to the first edition
Competency codes
Competency codes
Brief contents
List of Tables
List of Illustrations
1. Diseases of blood
Q. Give a brief account of erythropoietin (EPO), recombinant human erythropoietin (rHuEPO) and darbepoetin alpha.
Q. What are the ectopic sources of EPO?
Q. Discuss briefly about haematopoietic growth factors (HGFs).
Q. Define eosinophilia. What are the common causes of eosinophilia?
Q. Discuss the abnormalities of red cells that can be seen on a peripheral blood smear examination. (IM 9.10)
Q. Describe various blood indices used in patients with anaemia. (IM 9.7)
Q. Discuss aetiology, classification, clinical features and general management of anaemia. (IM 9.1, IM 9.12)
Q. Give a brief description about the anaemias due to blood loss.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical manifestations, diagnosis and management of iron-deficiency anaemia. (IM 9.13; IM 9.8)
Q. Write a short note on Plummer–Vinson syndrome (sideropenic dysphagia; Patterson–Kelly syndrome).
Q. How will you differentiate various causes of hypochromic microcytic anaemias?
Q. Give a brief account of sideroblastic anaemias.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, diagnosis and management of megaloblastic macrocytic anaemias.
Q. Enumerate the causes of macrocytosis and its diagnostic workup. (IM 9.1)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and management of Addisonian pernicious anaemia.
Q. Write a short note on vitamin B12.
Q. Discuss briefly the causes, manifestations and management of Vitamin B12 deficiency. (IM 9.13)
Q. Give a brief account of folic acid.
Q. Discuss briefly the causes, manifestations, diagnosis and management of folate deficiency. (IM 9.13)
Q. Describe the national programme for anaemia prevention. (IM 9.14)
Q. Enumerate the causes and management of normocytic anaemia.
Q. Discuss briefly the anaemia of chronic disease.
Q. How will you differentiate anaemia of chronic disease from iron-deficiency anaemia?
Q. Discuss briefly anaemia of critical illness.
Q. What are the causes of pancytopenia?
Q. Define aplastic anaemia. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of aplastic anaemia.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, classification, clinical features, diagnosis and management of haemolytic anaemias.
Q. Briefly outline hereditary spherocytosis.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, precipitating causes, clinical features, investigations and management of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency.
Q. Describe the structure of normal haemoglobin.
Q. How do you classify haemoglobinopathies (hereditary disorders of haemoglobin; Disorders of haemoglobin structure and synthesis)?
Q. Discuss the pathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and management of sickle cell anaemia.
Q. Give a brief account of methaemoglobinaemia.
Q. What are thalassaemias? What are the common forms and genetics of thalassaemias?
Q. Discuss the clinical features, salient investigations and management of beta-thalassaemia major (Cooley’s anaemia).
Q. Discuss briefly thalassaemia minor (trait) and thalassaemia intermedia.
Q. Give a brief account of paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH).
Q. Give a brief account of autoimmune haemolytic anaemias.
Q. What is the significance of Coombs’ test?
Q. Discuss cold haemagglutinin disease (CHAD) in brief.
Q. Write briefly on paroxysmal cold haemoglobinuria (PCH).
Q. Write short note on drug-induced immune haemolytic anaemia.
Q. What are myeloproliferative diseases or myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN)?
Q. What are myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS)?
Q. Classify myeloid neoplasms.
Q. What is polycythaemia? How do you classify polycythaemia?
Q. What are the clinical manifestations of polycythaemia?
Q. Discuss the clinical features, diagnosis and management of polycythaemia vera.
Q. How will you differentiate primary polycythaemia (polycythaemia vera) from secondary polycythaemia with hypoxia (e.g. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD])?
Q. Discuss briefly about essential thombocythaemia/thrombocytosis.
Q. What are the causes of thrombocytosis?
Q. Discuss the causes, clinical features and management of neutropenia.
Q. How do you classify leukaemias?
Q. Discuss the aetiology of leukaemias.
Q. Define acute leukaemia. Discuss the clinical features, investigations and management of acute leukaemias.
Q. How do you differentiate acute lymphoblastic leukaemia from acute myeloblastic leukaemia?
Q. Describe subleukaemic leukaemia.
Q. Define aleukaemic leukaemia.
Q. Discuss briefly about leukaemoid reaction.
Q. Define and classify stem cells. Discuss their clinical applications.
Q. Give a brief account of haematopoietic stem cells (HSC).
Q. Write a short note on peripheral blood stem cell transplantation.
Q. Briefly outline bone marrow transplantation.
Q. Discuss the natural course, clinical features and investigations of chronic myeloid leukaemia. Give a brief account of the treatment.
Q. Write a brief note on philadelphia chromosome (pH).
Q. Discuss the clinical features, investigations and management of primary myelofibrosis (agnogenic myeloid metaplasia, myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia).
Q. Define myelophthisis and discuss its causes.
Q. How do you differentiate chronic myeloid leukaemia from myelofibrosis?
Q. Describe the aetiology, classification, clinical features, diagnosis and treatment of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS).
Q. Discuss the types, clinical features, investigations, clinical staging and management of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL).
Q. Discuss the clinical features, investigations and management of hairy cell leukaemia.
Q. How do you classify splenomegaly? Enumerate the common causes of splenomegaly.
Q. How will you investigate a patient with splenomegaly?
Q. Enumerate the causes of massive splenomegaly. Discuss the differential diagnosis.
Q. Enumerate the causes, clinical features and treatment of hypersplenism.
Q. What are lymphomas? What are the common types of lymphomas?
Q. Discuss the pathological classification, clinical features, clinical staging, investigations and treatment of Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Q. Give a brief account of read–sternberg (RS) cell.
Q. Discuss the pathological classification, clinical staging, clinical features, investigations and management of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Q. How do you differentiate Hodgkin’s lymphoma from non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
Q. Describe Burkitt’s lymphoma/leukaemia.
Q. Briefly discuss adult T-cell lymphoma/leukaemia.
Q. Explain what is mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma or primary gastric lymphoma.
Q. Write a short note on mycosis fungoides and Sezary syndrome.
Q. What are plasma cell disorders?
Q. Discuss the immunopathology, pathology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of multiple myeloma.
Q. Write a short note on POEMS syndrome.
Q. What are the causes of M-component on electrophoresis?
Q. What are the causes of renal failure in multiple myeloma?
Q. Briefly discuss monoclonal gammopathy of renal significance.
Q. What are the indicators of poor prognosis in multiple myeloma?
Q. Discuss the role of radiographic examination in the diagnosis of multiple myeloma.
Q. What is monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)?
Q. How do you differentiate between multiple myeloma and monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance?
Q. How do you differentiate between smoldering multiple myeloma and monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance?
Q. Describe solitary plasmacytoma of bone.
Q. What is solitary extramedullary (extraosseous) plasmacytoma?
Q. Give a brief account of Waldenstrom macroglobulinaemia.
Q. Briefly outline the side effects, precautions and dosage of thalidomide.
Q. Discuss the mechanism of haemostasis.
Q. Write in brief about platelets and their functions.
Q. Briefly outline the natural inhibitors of coagulation.
Q. Describe fibrinolytic system.
Q. Discuss the evaluation of a patient with bleeding disorder.
Q. Define thrombocytopenia. Enumerate the common causes, clinical manifestations, investigations and management of thrombocytopenia.
Q. Describe tourniquet test (capillary resistance test of Hess; Hess test).
Q. Enumerate the common conditions inhibiting platelet function or qualitative platelet disorders.
Q. Discuss the pathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and management of immune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).
Q. Discuss thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.
Q. Discuss thrombotic microangiopathy.
Q. Discuss the clinical features, investigations and treatment of haemolytic-uraemic syndrome (HUS).
Q. Discuss the aetiology, classification, clinical features, diagnosis and management of haemophilia A.
Q. Write a short note on acquired haemophilia A.
Q. Briefly discuss haemophilia B (Christmas disease) and its management.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of von Willebrand’s disease (vWD).
Q. Write briefly on recombinant factor VII activated.
Q. Discuss the causes, pathogenesis, clinical features, lab features and management of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC; Defibrination syndrome; consumption coagulopathy).
Q. Give a brief account of vitamin K.
Q. Give a brief account of antiplatelet drugs.
Q. Classify anticoagulants. Give a brief account of the commonly used anticoagulants.
Q. Give a brief account of fibrinolytic system and fibrinolytic agents.
Q. Briefly describe thrombolytics.
Q. Briefly discuss about tranexamic acid.
Q. Discuss blood transfusion and blood component transfusion. (IM 9.17; IM 9.18)
Q. What are the complications of blood transfusion?
Q. Discuss the differential diagnosis of generalised lymphadenopathy in an adult.
Q. Discuss briefly about porphyrias.
MCQs
2. Diseases of the respiratory system
Q. Define a bronchopulmonary segment. Name the bronchopulmonary segments. (AN 24.3)
Q. Give the normal arterial blood gas (ABG) levels. (BI 6.8)
Q. Discuss the causes, mechanisms, clinical features, investigations and management of hypercapnia/hypercapnic encephalopathy (carbon dioxide [CO2] narcosis). (CT2.4)
Q. Discuss the causes, clinical features and management of hypoxaemia. (CT2.4)
Q. Define clubbing. Enumerate the causes and give the mechanism of clubbing.
Q. Describe abnormalities in nails due to systemic diseases.
Q. Enumerate the pulmonary function tests and give their clinical significance. (CT2.11)
Q. Define respiratory failure. Describe in detail the causes and management of various types of respiratory failures.
Q. Discuss the role of oxygen therapy in chronic type II respiratory failure complicating chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Q. What are sleep apnoea syndromes?
Q. What are the common therapeutic indications of oxygen therapy in clinical practice? Add a note on the hazards of oxygen therapy. (CT 2.20)
Q. Write a short note on hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
Q. Describe acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
Q. What is noncardiogenic pulmonary oedema?
Q. Discuss noninvasive ventilation.
Q. Discuss various types and modes of mechanical ventilation.
Q. Discuss the common settings of various ventilatory parameters.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations, complications and management of seasonal influenza. (IM3.19)
Q. Discuss briefly about swine flu (H1N1 influenza) and prevention of human influenza pandemic.
Q. Briefly discuss about avian influenza.
Q. Write a short note on severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
Q. Write a short note on Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS).
Q. Discuss the aetiology, classification, investigations, complications, indications for hospitalisation and treatment of pneumonia. (IM3.1; IM3.12; IM3.15; IM3.17; IM3.2; IM3.3; IM3.5)
Q. Describe suppurative pneumonias and necrotising pneumonias.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, diagnosis, complications and management of pneumococcal pneumonia (lobar pneumonia). (IM3.19)
Q. Give a brief account of staphylococcal pneumonia.
Q. Give a brief account of klebsiella pneumonia (Friedlander’s pneumonia).
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of atypical pneumonias.
Q. Give a brief account of legionella pneumonia (Legionnaire’s disease).
Q. Give a brief account of actinomycosis.
Q. Give a brief description of pneumonias caused by viruses (viral pneumonias).
Q. Give a brief account of acute bronchopneumonia.
Q. Describe eosinophilic pneumonias.
Q. Discuss in brief about pulmonary infiltrates with eosinophilia.
Q. Briefly discuss chronic eosinophilic pneumonia (Carrington’s disease).
Q. What is tropical pulmonary eosinophilia? Explain.
Q. Give a brief account of aspiration pneumonia. (IM3.1)
Q. What is meant by hospital-acquired pneumonia? How will you manage it?
Q. Write a short note on ventilator-associated pneumonia.
Q. What is nosocomial pneumonia? (IM3.1)
Q. How do you classify mycobacteria? Give an account of diseases produced by them.
Q. Describe mycobacteria other than tuberculosis (MOTT).
Q. Write a brief note on nontuberculous mycobacteria (NTM).
Q. Discuss the pathogenesis, pathology, clinical manifestations and diagnosis of primary pulmonary tuberculosis. (CT1.2)
Q. Write in brief about primary complex of ranke and Ghon’s complex.
Q. Discuss the epidemiology, pathogenesis, pathology, clinical manifestations, complications and diagnosis of postprimary pulmonary tuberculosis. (CT1.1;CT1.12,CT1.3)
Q. Enumerate the causes of haemoptysis in pulmonary tuberculosis.
Q. Give a brief account of sputum smear examination for mycobacteria. (CT1.10)
Q. What are the common causes of false-positive and false-negative results of sputum examination?
Q. List down the radiological features of pulmonary tuberculosis.
Q. Write a short note on tuberculin testing. (CT1.7)
Q. What is mantoux test? (CT1.7)
Q. How do you make an assessment of activity of tuberculosis?
Q. Describe latent tuberculosis infection.
Q. What do you understand by the terms ‘bactericidal action’ and ‘sterilising action’ in relation to antituberculous drugs?
Q. What are antituberculous drugs and what are their dosages in adults? (CT1.14)
Q. Discuss modes of action of first-line drugs. (CT1.14)
Q. Describe rifampicin-related antitubercular agents. (CT1.14)
Q. What are the side effects of the commonly used antituberculous drugs? (CT1.14)
Q. Discuss regimen of antituberculous chemotherapy. (CT1.15)
Q. What is short-course chemotherapy? What are the advantages of short-course chemotherapy? (CT1.15)
Q. What is the ‘fall and rise’ phenomenon?
Q. How can the progress of antitubercular treatment be monitored and the treatment result assessed? (CT1.17)
Q. Discuss the directly observed treatment, short course (DOTS). (CT1.18)
Q. What is stop TB strategy?
Q. What is end TB strategy?
Q. What is DOTS-Plus strategy? (CT1.18)
Q. What are the forms of drug resistances encountered during antituberculous chemotherapy? (CT1.17)
Q. What are the common causes of drug resistance? (CT1.4)
Q. What are the various methods for performing drug susceptibility tests for M. Tuberculosis?
Q. How will you manage a patient with multidrug-resistant (MDR) tuberculosis? (CT1.17)
Q. How will you manage extensively resistant (XDR) tuberculosis? (CT1.17)
Q. What are the indications of corticosteroids in the management of tuberculosis?
Q. What is extrapulmonary tuberculosis?
Q. Discuss the pathogenesis, types, clinical features, diagnosis and management of miliary tuberculosis in adults.
Q. Write in brief on cryptic miliary tuberculosis.
Q. Describe nonreactive miliary tuberculosis and disseminated nonreactive tuberculosis. Discuss their pathogenesis.
Q. Discuss the pathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and management of tuberculous pleural effusion. (CT1.11)
Q. Write a short note on tuberculosis chemoprophylaxis.
Q. What is bronchopulmonary aspergillosis? How do you classify bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, diagnosis and management of intracavitary aspergilloma (fungal ball).
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, diagnosis and management of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis.
Q. Discuss the clinical features, diagnostic criteria and management of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA; Asthmatic pulmonary eosinophilia).
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of bronchial asthma. (CT2.16; CT2.18; CT2.22; CT2.7)
Q. How will you differentiate early-onset (atopic) asthma from late-onset (nonatopic) asthma?
Q. Discuss the clinical presentation and management of severe acute asthma (status asthmaticus). (CT2.19)
Q. Write a short note on occupational asthma.
Q. Discuss the clinical features, diagnosis and management of hypersensitivity pneumonitis (extrinsic allergic alveolitis).
Q. What is meant by farmer’s lung?
Q. Discuss the causes, clinical presentation and management of bronchial obstruction.
Q. Define chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), chronic obstructive lung disease (COLD) or chronic obstructive airway disease (COAD). (CT2.1)
Q. What are small airways diseases?
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathology, clinical features, course, prognosis and treatment of chronic bronchitis. (CT2.2; CT2.20; CT2.3; CT2.6; CT2.7)
Q. Discuss the pathogenesis of the complications of chronic bronchitis.
Q. How do you manage a case of acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis?
Q. Discuss briefly about global initiative for chronic obstructive lung disease (GOLD).
Q. What is emphysema? What are the various types of emphysema?
Q. Describe mediastinal emphysema.
Q. What is subcutaneous emphysema?
Q. Discuss compensatory emphysema.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathology, clinical features, investigations, complications and management of pulmonary emphysema.
Q. What is α1-antitrypsin deficiency? (CT2.5)
Q. Give a brief account of pulmonary bullae.
Q. What are blue bloaters?
Q. What are pink puffers?
Q. What are the differentiating features of emphysema and chronic bronchitis?
Q. What are the differentiating features of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
Q. Describe various components of cigarette smoke.
Q. Name the diseases caused by smoking.
Q. Discuss smoking cessation. (CT2.21)
Q. Briefly discuss e-cigarette or vaping product use associated lung injury (EVALI).
Q. Discuss air pollution briefly. (CT2.6)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, classification, clinical features, investigations, complications and management of bronchiectasis.
Q. What is pseudobronchiectasis?
Q. What is postobstructive bronchiectasis?
Q. What is bronchiectasis sicca (dry bronchiectasis)?
Q. What is atelectasis? Discuss it briefly.
Q. Discuss middle lobe bronchiectasis (middle lobe syndrome or Brock’s syndrome).
Q. Enumerate the clinical features, diagnosis and treatment of ciliary dysfunction syndromes (ciliary dyskinesia syndromes).
Q. Describe primary ciliary dyskinesia (PCD).
Q. What are Kartagener’s syndrome and Young’s syndrome?
Q. Define lung abscess. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations, complications and management of lung abscess. (PA 26.2)
Q. Discuss briefly about diffuse alveolar haemorrhage (DAH).
Q. Classify primary bronchial tumours.
Q. Discuss the aetiopathogenesis, histopathological features, clinical features, investigations and management of bronchial carcinoma (bronchogenic carcinoma).
Q. What are the paraneoplastic syndromes associated with bronchogenic carcinoma?
Q. What are the neurological manifestations of bronchial carcinoma?
Q. Briefly discuss hypertrophic osteoarthropathy (hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy).
Q. Describe Pancoast’s syndrome (Pancoast’s tumour; superior sulcus tumour syndrome, Pancoast–Tobias syndrome).
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations and treatment of carcinoid tumours (bronchial adenomas).
Q. Define mediastinum. What are its various compartments? (AN 21.11)
Q. Discuss the causes, clinical features and management of superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome.
Q. What are the common mediastinal masses? Discuss briefly the clinical features, investigations and management of mediastinal tumours.
Q. Discuss briefly about solitary pulmonary nodule (SPN).
Q. What are the types of pulmonary fibrosis?
Q. Enumerate the causes of interstitial fibrosis.
Q. Discuss the clinical features, radiological features and management of replacement fibrosis.
Q. Discuss briefly about interstitial lung diseases.
Q. What are idiopathic interstitial pneumonias?
Q. Discuss the clinical features, investigations and treatment of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.
Q. Enumerate the common occupational lung diseases and give their aetiologies.
Q. Write a note on pneumoconiosis.
Q. Give a brief account of the asbestos-related diseases of lungs and pleura.
Q. Give a brief account of Coal Worker’s pneumoconiosis (CWP).
Q. What is progressive massive fibrosis (PMF)?
Q. Write a short note on Caplan’s syndrome (rheumatoid pneumoconiosis).
Q. Give a brief account of silicosis.
Q. Discuss the clinical features, investigations and management of sarcoidosis.
Q. Describe Lofgren’s syndrome.
Q. Give a brief account of Heerfordt–Waldenstrom syndrome.
Q. How will you differentiate sarcoidosis from pulmonary tuberculosis?
Q. Discuss the causes, clinical features, investigations and management of pleural effusion.
Q. How will you differentiate transudative pleural effusions from exudative pleural effusions? (CT1.11)
Q. Describe phantom tumour.
Q. What is Grocco’s sign?
Q. Discuss briefly about re-expansion pulmonary oedema.
Q. What is subpulmonic effusion? How will you diagnose it?
Q. What are the common causes of haemorrhagic pleural effusion? Give a brief account of malignant pleural effusion.
Q. Describe parapneumonic effusion (synpneumonic effusion and postpneumonic effusion).
Q. Write a brief note on chylous pleural effusion (chylothorax).
Q. Describe pseudochylous pleural effusion (pseudochylothorax).
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations, complications and management of empyema thoracis.
Q. Discuss the management of nontuberculous empyema.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, types and management of pneumothorax.
Q. Describe tension pneumothorax.
Q. Write a short note on catamenial pneumothorax.
Q. What is clicking pneumothorax? Explain.
Q. What are the physical signs of hydropneumothorax?
Q. How can you clinically differentiate pleural effusion from pneumothorax and hydropneumothorax?
Q. How will you differentiate haemoptysis from haematemesis?
Q. Define haemoptysis. What are the common causes of haemoptysis?
Q. Outline the management of a case of haemoptysis.
Q. Discuss the management of massive (potentially lethal) haemoptysis.
Q. Discuss briefly the differential diagnosis of acute-onset dyspnoea.
Q. What are the borders of Traube’s space? How is it clinically significant?
MCQs
3. Immunological factors in disease
Q. What are the body’s defence mechanisms?
Q. Discuss briefly about innate or nonspecific immunity. (MI 1.8)
Q. Describe the acquired immunity (specific or adaptive immunity). (MI 1.8)
Q. Write a short note on the complement system.
Q. Briefly discuss immunoglobulins.
Q. Describe the functions of immunoglobulins. (MI 1.8; PA 9.1)
Q. What are cytokines?
Q. Give a brief account of inflammatory response.
Q. Describe acute phase reactants.
Q. Explain erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
Q. What is tolerance? Explain briefly.
Q. Describe autoimmunity.
Q. What are the different types of immune reactions/hypersensitivity reactions? (MI 1.10)
Q. Write a short note on monoclonal antibodies.
Q. Describe haemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis
Q. Describe macrophage activation syndrome.
Q. Write a brief note on IgG4-related disease.
Q. Describe primary immunodeficiency diseases (MI 1.10)
Q. Explain urticaria or hives. (DR14.1, DR14.5)
Q. Discuss the clinical features and treatment of angioedema. (DR14.1, DR14.5)
Q. What are anaphylactic reactions?
Q. Discuss briefly anaphylactoid reaction.
Q. What is meant by serum sickness?
Q. Explain the HLA system.
Q. What is acquired immunodeficiency syndrome? Discuss the staging, aetiology, transmission, clinical manifestations, laboratory diagnosis and management. (DR11.1, IM6.1, IM6.11, IM6.16, IM6.18, IM6.2, IM6.3, IM6.4, IM6.5, IM6.9)
Q. Discuss tuberculosis in HIV infection. (CT 1.3)
Q. Describe the management of HIV/AIDS during pregnancy.
Q. Give a brief account of immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome.
Q. Discuss briefly about preexposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for HIV infection.
Q. Write a short note on HIV vaccines.
Q. Discuss transmission of HIV to healthcare workers.
Q. What are the recommendations on postexposure care of a healthcare worker? (IM6.17)
MCQs
4. Diseases of skin
Q. Describe various primary and secondary skin lesions.
Q. What are the various types of eczema? Briefly outline their clinical features and general management. (DR12.1, DR12.3, DR12.4, DR12.5)
Q. Give a brief account of dermatitis.
Q. Discuss aetiology and management of xerostomia.
Q. Discuss briefly about pruritus.
Q. Briefly outline the clinical manifestations and management of psoriasis. (DR3.1, DR3.3)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, diagnosis and treatment of erythema nodosum.
Q. Briefly outline the aetiology, clinical features and management of acne vulgaris. (DR1.1, DR1.2, DR1.3)
Q. Briefly outline the precipitating causes, clinical manifestations and management of erythema multiforme.
Q. Give a brief account of target lesions, iris lesions and bull’s-eye lesions.
Q. Write a short note on Stevens–Johnson’s syndrome.
Q. Briefly outline toxic epidermal necrolysis.
Q. Describe the aetiology, clinical features and management of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome.
Q. Briefly outline keloid and hypertrophic scar.
Q. Write briefly about the aetiology, clinical features and treatment of vitiligo. (DR2.1, DR2.2)
Q. Name a few conditions which can cause hypopigmentation.
Q. Name a few conditions which can cause hyperpigmentation.
Q. What is Café au lait? Explain.
Q. Write a short note on McCune–Albright’s syndrome.
Q. Write a short note on alopecia.
Q. Write a short note on alopecia areata.
Q. Give a brief account of scabies. (DR5.1, DR5.3)
Q. What is norwegian or crusted scabies?
Q. Write a short note on pediculosis. (DR6.1)
Q. What are warts? Discuss their treatment. (DR8.4)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, diagnosis and treatment of pemphigus vulgaris.
Q. What is Nikolsky’s sign?
Q. Define bullous pemphigoid or pemphigoid. Briefly outline its aetiology, clinical features, diagnosis and treatment.
Q. Differentiate pemphigus vulgaris from bullous pemphigoid.
Q. Discuss briefly about lichen planus. (DR4.1, DR4.2)
Q. Write a short note on DRESS syndrome.
Q. What are the common dermatophytoses? Briefly describe them. (DR7.1)
Q. What is ID reaction?
Q. Write a short note on tinea versicolor or pityriasis versicolor.
Q. Describe acanthosis nigricans.
Q. Briefly discuss the common skin malignancies.
5. Diseases of the nervous system
Q. Discuss the signs of upper motor and lower motor neuron lesions. (IM 18.6)
Q. Describe plantar reflex and extensor plantar reflex.
Q. What are the alternative methods to elicit plantar reflex?
Q. How will you differentiate rigidity from spasticity?
Q. Discuss hemiplegia in an elderly male. Give the differential diagnosis, investigations and treatment.
Q. Write a short note on apraxia.
Q. What is agnosia? Give a brief account.
Q. Describe anosognosia.
Q. What are aphasia, dysphasia, dysarthria and aphonia?
Q. What is sensory aphasia? What is Wernicke’s aphasia?
Q. What is motor aphasia? What is Broca’s aphasia?
Q. Discuss the normal lobar functions and their abnormalities.
Q. What is organic brain syndrome?
Q. Discuss briefly about delirium.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of dementia. (PS 16.1)
Q. Describe mild cognitive impairment.
Q. Differentiation between delirium, dementia and psychosis. (PS 16.1)
Q. Give a brief account of nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) and MRI.
Q. What is the significance of xanthochromia in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis?
Q. List down the indications and contraindications of lumbar puncture.
Q. What are the features of normal cerebrospinal fluid? (BI 11.15)
Q. Discuss the value of CSF analysis. (BI 11.15, IM 17.19)
Q. Discuss the formation of CSF and its functions. (AN 56.2)
Q. What is Froin’s syndrome?
Q. Describe Queckenstedt’s test.
Q. Enumerate the causes of papilloedema.
Q. What is ptosis? List down its causes. (OP 2.1)
Q. Discuss the visual pathway. Illustrate the field defects produced at various levels. (OP 8.5)
Q. Give a brief account of diplopia.
Q. Briefly outline the clinical features and treatment of trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux).
Q. What are the causes of pinpoint pupil?
Q. Draw a diagram showing oculosympathetic pathways relevant to Horner’s syndrome.
Q. Write a brief note on Horner’s syndrome.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathology, clinical features, differential diagnosis and management of Bell’s palsy. (EN 4.18)
Q. Describe the aetiology, clinical features and treatment of ramsay hunt syndrome (geniculate herpes).
Q. Briefly outline the course of facial nerve. What are the various levels at which facial nerve can get damaged? How will you clinically differentiate between the lesions at different sites? (AN 28.7)
Q. Write a brief note on Argyll Robertson pupil.
Q. What is Adie’s pupil or tonic pupil?
Q. Describe briefly the manifestations of raised intracranial pressure and its management.
Q. Discuss various brain herniation syndromes.
Q. Write a short note on cerebellopontine angle tumours.
Q. What is acoustic neuroma?
Q. Mention the causes of intracranial space-occupying lesions and describe the signs and symptoms of such lesions.
Q. What are primary and secondary headaches? (IM 17.1)
Q. Discuss the classification, pathogenesis, clinical features and management of migraine. (IM 17.3)
Q. Write a short note on cluster headache. (IM 17.1)
Q. Classify epilepsy. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, diagnosis and management of idiopathic epilepsy.
Q. Describe petit mal epilepsy and its treatment.
Q. What is Jacksonian epilepsy?
Q. What is status epilepticus? How will you manage a case of status epilepticus?
Q. Describe the circle of Willis. (AN 62.6)
Q. Give an account of different types of cerebrovascular accidents and their pathophysiology. (IM 18.2)
Q. What are the risk factors for stroke? (IM 18.2)
Q. Define transient ischaemic attack. Discuss its mechanism, clinical features, investigations and management.
Q. Discuss briefly about Wallenberg’s syndrome (lateral medullary syndrome).
Q. How do you differentiate between haemorrhagic, thrombotic and embolic strokes?
Q. Discuss clinical features and management of cerebral infarct.
Q. Discuss briefly about lacunar infarction.
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations and treatment of primary SAH.
Q. Briefly outline the risk factors, clinical features, diagnosis and management of ICH.
Q. How will you prevent occurrence of first episode of stroke?
Q. Discuss in brief the primary prevention of stroke.
Q. Give a brief account of cerebral venous thrombosis.
Q. What are the causes of stroke in young?
Q. Describe the pathogenesis, clinical features and management of Alzheimer’s disease.
Q. Describe the aetiology, clinical features and diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease. (IM 19.8)
Q. What is parkinsonism? How would you classify parkinsonism? Discuss the management of idiopathic parkinsonism.
Q. Discuss briefly the CNS disorders characterised by involuntary movements. (IM 19.2)
Q. Define tremors. How do you classify tremors? Describe them briefly.
Q. What are the various signs in cerebellar diseases?
Q. Enumerate various gait disorders.
Q. Write a short note on cerebellar ataxias.
Q. Classify meningitis and enumerate its causes. (PA 35.1)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of pyogenic meningitis. Syn: acute bacterial meningitis (ABM). (MI 15.1)
Q. What is meant by Mollaret’s meningitis?
Q. Write a short note on aseptic meningitis.
Q. Enumerate the causes of neck stiffness.
Q. Describe the causes, clinical features, investigations, differential diagnosis and sequelae of viral encephalitis. (MI 5.2)
Q. Describe the aetiology, clinical features, complications and treatment of Herpes zoster.
Q. Discuss the aetiopathogenesis, clinical features, complications and management of tuberculous meningitis.
Q. How will you differentiate bacterial, viral and TBM on the basis of CSF examination?
Q. What are the common causes of acute fever and altered sensorium (febrile encephalopathy)?
Q. Describe the clinical features and management of neurosyphilis.
Q. Discuss briefly about Charcot joint.
Q. What are the common demyelinating diseases?
Q. Describe the nerve supply of urinary bladder. Add a note on neurogenic bladder.
Q. Draw a diagram showing transverse section of spinal cord at upper cervical area.
Q. Tabulate spinal cord levels relative to vertebral levels.
Q. Discuss causes and clinical features of various spinal cord syndromes.
Q. Describe the aetiology, clinical features, complications and management of paraplegia.
Q. Write a short note on paraplegia in flexion, paraplegia in extension, flaccid paraplegia and acute spinal paraplegia.
Q. Discuss the causes and differential diagnosis of spastic paraplegia.
Q. Enumerate causes of acute flaccid paralysis or weakness.
Q. What are the causes of episodic quadriparesis?
Q. Describe briefly about transverse myelitis.
Q. How do you differentiate between compressive and noncompressive myelopathy?
Q. How do you differentiate between extradural, intradural extramedullary and intramedullary myelopathies?
Q. How will you differentiate between conus medullaris lesions and cauda equina lesions?
Q. Discuss briefly about neurocutaneous syndromes.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, diagnosis and management of lumbago sciatica syndrome.
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations, investigations and management of intervertebral disc prolapse (IVDP).
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of syringomyelia.
Q. Give a brief account of dissociated suspended anaesthesia.
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations, investigations and management of cervical spondylosis/spondylitis. (OR 6.1)
Q. What are the causes and clinical manifestations of Brown-Sequard syndrome?
Q. What are the physical signs of posterior column lesion?
Q. What are the diseases affecting posterior column? Give the clinical features of any one of them.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features and management of subacute combined degeneration.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical manifestations, management and prognosis of motor neuron disease.
Q. Briefly discuss spinal muscular atrophy.
Q. Briefly outline classification, clinical features, investigations, diagnosis and treatment of multiple sclerosis.
Q. Write a short note on neuromyelitis optica (Devic’s disease).
Q. Enumerate the common neurological manifestations of vitamin deficiency.
Q. What is peripheral neuropathy?
Q. What are the commonly encountered causes of polyneuropathies? Discuss the clinical presentation, investigations and management of polyneuropathies.
Q. What are the conditions associated with significant autonomic neuropathies?
Q. How do you differentiate between large-fibre and small-fibre neuropathies?
Q. How will you differentiate between axonal and demyelinating neuropathy?
Q. Write a brief note on Guillain–Barre syndrome (GB syndrome), postinfective polyneuropathy, acute inflammatory polyneuropathy or acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy (AIDP).
Q. Discuss the clinical features, investigations and management of myasthenia gravis.
Q. Briefly describe edrophonium test (Tensilon test).
Q. Explain muscular dystrophies or hereditary myopathies. (PY 3.13; PE 30.14)
Q. Write a short note on differential diagnosis of wasting of small muscles of hand.
Q. Outline the causes of coma. How do you proceed to investigate and manage a case of coma?
Q. Write a short note on Glasgow coma scale.
Q. Write a short note on brain death.
MCQs
6. Diseases of the liver and biliary system
Q. Enumerate important functions of liver. (PY 4.7)
Q. Discuss various liver function tests and their significance in Jaundice. (PY 4.8)
Q. Write a short note on alpha-foetoprotein.
Q. Briefly discuss the indications and significance of liver biopsy.
Q. Enumerate the contraindications of liver biopsy.
Q. What is hepatic elastography? Explain briefly. (IM 5.13)
Q. Explain endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography. (IM 5.13)
Q. Give a brief account of uses and complications of percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC).
Q. Write briefly on magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography. (IM 5.13)
Q. Write a short note on endoscopic ultrasound.
Q. What are the sources of bilirubin? Discuss the metabolism of bilirubin. (IM 5.1)
Q. Briefly discuss van den Bergh reaction.
Q. Enumerate the causes of Jaundice. How will you arrive at the aetiology of Jaundice? Give the points of differentiation in clinical features and investigations. (IM 5.1)
Q. How do you clinically differentiate haemolytic Jaundice, hepatocellular Jaundice and obstructive (cholestatic) Jaundice?
Q. Discuss briefly the congenital nonhaemolytic hyperbilirubinaemias.
Q. Explain briefly about Charcot’s triad.
Q. Explain briefly reynolds pentad.
Q. Describe Courvoisier’s law.
Q. Write a short note on drug- and toxin-induced liver injury. (IM 5.7)
Q. Describe the aetiology, epidemiology, pathogenesis, clinical features and treatment of viral hepatitis. Add a note on the diagnosis and prevention. (IM 5.16, IM 5.17, IM 5.4)
Q. Give a brief account of aetiology and epidemiology of delta hepatitis.
Q. Briefly describe anicteric hepatitis.
Q. Write briefly on Australia antigen, HBsAg or hepatitis B surface antigen.
Q. Define fulminant (acute) hepatic failure. Discuss the causes, pathology, clinical features, investigations, complications and management of fulminant (acute) hepatic failure. (IM 5.2)
Q. Give a brief account of subacute hepatic failure.
Q. Describe Reye’s syndrome.
Q. How do you classify chronic parenchymal liver diseases?
Q. Discuss the classification, aetiology, pathology, clinical features and management of chronic hepatitis.
Q. Write a short note on autoimmune hepatitis.
Q. Briefly discuss alcoholic liver disease. (IM 5.5)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathology, pathogenesis, classification, clinical features, investigations, complications and treatment of cirrhosis. (IM 5.16, IM 5.6)
Q. Describe Laennec’s cirrhosis and alcoholic cirrhosis.
Q. Enumerate the causes of gynaecomastia.
Q. Briefly explain Child–Pugh score or Child–Turcotte–Pugh score.
Q. Write a short note on anatomy of the portal venous system. How do you define and classify portal hypertension?
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and complications of portal hypertension. (IM 5.16, IM 5.6)
Q. Discuss the diagnosis and management of variceal bleeding. (IM 15.2, IM 5.16, IM 5.6)
Q. Name the drugs that are used in the reduction of portal venous pressure.
Q. Define hepatic (portosystemic) encephalopathy. Discuss the aetiopathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and treatment of hepatic encephalopathy. (IM 5.16, IM 5.6)
Q. Discuss acute-on-chronic liver failure (ACLF)
Q. Write a short note on hepatorenal syndrome (HRS).
Q. Write a short note on acute kidney injury in cirrhotic patients.
Q. Discuss the pathogenesis and management of ascites and refractory ascites in cirrhosis. (IM 5.16, IM 5.6)
Q. Briefly explain spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. (IM 5.16, IM 5.6)
Q. Discuss the definition, mechanism, causes, clinical features and differential diagnosis of ascites.
Q. What is Puddle sign?
Q. What are various disorders associated with iron overload?
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathology, clinical features, investigations and management of hereditary (primary) haemochromatosis (‘bronzed diabetes’).
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathology, clinical features, investigations and management of Wilson’s disease (hepatolenticular degeneration).
Q. Explain in brief about Kayser–Fleischer ring.
Q. Write a short note on an α1-antitrypsin.
Q. What is biliary cirrhosis?
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathology, clinical features, investigations and management of primary biliary cholangitis (primary biliary cirrhosis).
Q. What is meant by secondary biliary cirrhosis?
Q. What is cardiac cirrhosis?
Q. Write a short note on noncirrhotic portal fibrosis or idiopathic noncirrhotic portal hypertension.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathology, clinical features, investigations and management of hepatic venous outflow tract obstruction.
Q. Explain briefly about Budd–Chiari syndrome.
Q. Describe veno-occlusive disease or hepatic sinusoidal obstruction syndrome.
Q. Discuss fatty liver and its causes; non-alcoholic fatty liver disease; metabolic dysfunction-associated fatty liver disease; non-alcoholic steatohepatitis.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of hepatocellular carcinoma (hepatoma).
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of pyogenic liver abscess (bacterial liver abscess).
Q. Discuss the differential diagnosis of Jaundice of 3 weeks’ duration in an elderly person.
Q. What are the common causes of hepatomegaly with tenderness (tender hepatomegaly)?
Q. Enumerate the common causes of splenomegaly.
MCQs
7. Diseases of the cardiovascular system
Q. Discuss the differential diagnosis of chest pain.
Q. Give a brief account of mechanism, causes, consequences and management of cheyne–stokes breathing.
Q. Discuss the approach to a patient with palpitations.
Q. Discuss the differential diagnosis of syncope. (PY 5.11)
Q. Define cyanosis. Mention the causes and mechanisms of central and peripheral cyanosis. (PY 6.6)
Q. How will you differentiate central cyanosis from peripheral cyanosis?
Q. Explain in brief about differential cyanosis.
Q. Discuss the clinical value of examination of radial and carotid pulses at bedside.
Q. Describe the normal wave patterns of jugular venous pulse and their variations.
Q. How will you differentiate jugular venous pulse from carotid pulse?
Q. Briefly describe hepatojugular reflux and abdominojugular reflux test.
Q. Give a brief account of Kussmaul’s sign.
Q. How do you calculate central venous pressure from jugular venous pressure?
Q. Discuss the clinical importance of apex beat.
Q. Briefly discuss about left parasternal heave or left parasternal impulse.
Q. What is the mechanism of first heart sound? Discuss the variations in first heart sound.
Q. What is the mechanism of second heart sound? Discuss the variations in second heart sound.
Q. Discuss the significance of third heart sound.
Q. Discuss the significance of fourth heart sound.
Q. What is summation gallop?
Q. Discuss other abnormal cardiac sounds on auscultation.
Q. Discuss the conduction system of the heart briefly.
Q. How do you analyse an electrocardiogram? (IM 1.18)
Q. Explain the usefulness of electrocardiogram.
Q. Classify antiarrhythmic agents.
Q. Define and classify cardiac arrhythmias. (IM 2.19)
Q. Explain sinus arrhythmia.
Q. What are ectopic beats (extrasystoles; premature beats)?
Q. Describe supraventricular ectopics (atrial ectopics; atrial premature beats).
Q. Explain briefly about ventricular ectopics (ventricular extrasystoles; ventricular premature beats, premature ventricular contractions—PVC).
Q. Describe briefly about tachycardias.
Q. Write a brief note on narrow complex and wide complex tachycardias.
Q. What do you understand by the term supraventricular tachycardias? Name various supraventricular tachycardias.
Q. What do you understand by the term ‘reentry’ arrhythmias?
Q. Describe sinus tachycardia.
Q. Write a short note on paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathophysiology, clinical features, complications and management of atrial fibrillation. (IM 1.8)
Q. Define atrial flutter. Discuss the causes, electrocardiographic features and management of atrial flutter.
Q. Discuss briefly Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome.
Q. Explain briefly about sick sinus syndrome or sinus node dysfunction.
Q. Explain briefly about ventricular tachycardia.
Q. Write a short note on torsades de pointes.
Q. Give a brief outline of Brugada syndrome.
Q. Describe briefly early repolarisation syndrome.
Q. What is commotio cordis?
Q. Write a short note on sudden cardiac death.
Q. Define cardiac arrest. What are the causes of cardiac arrest? How do you manage it?
Q. Explain about cardiopulmonary resuscitation. (IM 2.21, IM 2.22)
Q. Discuss the causes, clinical features and management of atrioventricular blocks.
Q. What are stokes–adams attacks (stokes–adams–morgagni attacks)? Write their clinical features.
Q. Briefly describe defibrillation and cardioversion.
Q. Define acute circulatory failure/shock.
Q. Give the classification, causes and management of shock. (SU 2.1)
Q. Give the causes and management of cardiogenic shock. (SU 2.2)
Q. Describe hypovolaemic shock, septic shock, sirs and sepsis. (PY 5.11)
Q. Give a brief account of anaphylactic shock and neurogenic shock.
Q. Explain briefly about sympathomimetic amines and vasopressor agents.
Q. Write a note on adrenergic receptors.
Q. Define pulmonary oedema. Enumerate the causes of pulmonary oedema.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical presentation, investigations and management of cardiogenic pulmonary oedema. Add a note on the pathophysiology.
Q. Define orthopnoea, trepopnoea and platypnoea/orthodeoxia.
Q. Define heart failure. Discuss the types, common causes, pathophysiology, clinical features, staging and management of heart failure. (IM 1.1, IM 1.24, IM 1.4, IM 1.5, IM 1.6, IM 1.7)
Q. Write a note on acute heart failure.
Q. Discuss the pathogenesis of ascites in heart failure.
Q. What are the features of left ventricular failure (left-sided failure; left heart failure)?
Q. What are the features of right ventricular failure (right-sided failure; right heart failure)?
Q. What is refractory or advanced heart failure? How will you manage a case of refractory heart failure?
Q. Give a brief account of brain natriuretic peptide.
Q. Give a brief account of digoxin. (IM 1.24)
Q. What are the manifestations of digoxin toxicity? How will you manage a case of digoxin toxicity?
Q. Discuss the role of diuretic therapy in the management of heart failure. (IM 1.24)
Q. Discuss the role of vasodilator therapy in heart failure. (IM 1.24)
Q. Briefly explain about afterload reduction therapy.
Q. What is the role of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors in the management of heart failure? (IM 1.24)
Q. Explain the role of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors in hypertension.
Q. What is the role of beta-blockers in the management of heart failure? (IM 1.24)
Q. Define cor pulmonale. What are the types of cor pulmonale?
Q. What is acute cor pulmonale? Discuss the clinical manifestations of acute cor pulmonale.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and management of chronic cor pulmonale.
Q. Define rheumatic fever. Discuss the aetiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and management of rheumatic fever. Add a note on rheumatic fever prophylaxis. (IM 1.27, IM 1.3, IM 1.9)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features and management of rheumatic chorea (Sydenham’s chorea; chorea minor; saint vitus’ dance).
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathophysiology, clinical features, investigations and complications of mitral stenosis.
Q. How do you grade the severity of mitral stenosis based on mitral valve orifice size?
Q. Explain briefly about juvenile mitral stenosis and paediatric mitral stenosis.
Q. How will you clinically differentiate between mitral opening snap and split second heart sound?
Q. How will you differentiate between the mitral opening snap and left ventricular third heart sound?
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathophysiology, clinical features, investigations, complications and management of chronic mitral regurgitation. How do you clinically assess the severity of mitral regurgitation?
Q. Discuss briefly about acute mitral regurgitation.
Q. In the presence of combined mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation, how will you clinically assess the dominance of lesions?
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, complications and management of mitral valve prolapse or Barlow’s syndrome.
Q. Classify aortic stenosis.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of valvular aortic stenosis.
Q. What is the mechanism of angina in aortic stenosis?
Q. How will you clinically assess the severity of aortic stenosis?
Q. Discuss briefly about aortic sclerosis.
Q. Write a short note on bicuspid aortic valve disease.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, complications, investigations and treatment of aortic regurgitation.
Q. What are the peripheral signs of aortic regurgitation?
Q. Explain the clinical assessment of severity of aortic regurgitation.
Q. Describe angina in aortic regurgitation.
Q. What is nocturnal angina?
Q. How do you differentiate between aortic regurgitation of rheumatic and syphilitic aetiology?
Q. How will you clinically differentiate the early diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation from that of pulmonary regurgitation?
Q. What is meant by Austin Flint murmur (AFM)?
Q. How will you clinically differentiate Austin Flint murmur from the murmur of mitral stenosis (MS)?
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features and management of tricuspid stenosis (TS).
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features and management of tricuspid regurgitation.
Q. What is De-Carvallo’s sign?
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations, investigations and management of pulmonary stenosis (PS).
Q. Discuss the manoeuvres useful in differentiating murmurs due to various cardiac diseases.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathology, clinical features, investigations, treatment and prophylaxis of infective endocarditis. (IM 1.21)
Q. Explain in brief about postoperative endocarditis.
Q. Write a brief note on Osler’s nodes.
Q. Give a brief account of Janeway lesions.
Q. Enumerate the important features of roth spots.
Q. Briefly explain non-infective endocarditis.
Q. Write a short note on marantic endocarditis.
Q. Write a short note on Libman-Sacks endocarditis.
Q. Discuss the aetiology and risk factors of ischaemic heart disease (IHD) or coronary artery disease. (IM 2.1, IM 2.2)
Q. Discuss pathogenesis of atherosclerosis.
Q. What is ankle–brachial index?
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations, investigations and management of angina pectoris.
Q. Write a short note on angina decubitus, nocturnal angina, Prinzmetal’s angina (variant angina) and microvascular angina.
Q. What are acute coronary syndromes? (IM 2.5)
Q. Discuss the clinical features, complications, investigations and management of acute myocardial infarction (ST-elevation myocardial infarction—STEMI). (IM 2.14, IM 2.15, IM 2.16, IM 2.17, IM 2.19, IM 2.20, IM 2.23)
Q. Describe thrombolytic therapy in acute myocardial infarction. (IM 2.16)
Q. Briefly discuss unstable angina and non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction. (IM 2.14, IM 2.15, IM 2.17, IM 2.19, IM 2.20, IM 2.23)
Q. Classify hypertension. Discuss the pathophysiology, clinical features, complications and management of essential hypertension. (IM 8.14, IM 8.2, IM 8.4, IM 8.8)
Q. Discuss the causes and investigations of secondary hypertension. (IM 8.1, IM 8.12)
Q. Explain briefly about malignant hypertension.
Q. Discuss the clinical presentation and management of hypertensive encephalopathy.
Q. Discuss briefly about hypertensive emergencies. (IM 8.15, IM 8.6)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathophysiology, clinical features and investigations of pulmonary hypertension.
Q. Briefly explain about Graham Steell murmur.
Q. What is primary pulmonary arterial hypertension? Discuss the clinical manifestations and management of primary pulmonary hypertension (PPH).
Q. Discuss about idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension.
Q. Discuss the risk factors, clinical features, investigations and treatment of venous thrombosis (deep venous thrombosis—DVT).
Q. Discuss the prophylaxis of venous thrombosis (deep venous thrombosis—DVT).
Q. Explain about wells probability score.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of pulmonary embolism and pulmonary infarction.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations, complications and management of acute myocarditis.
Q. Define cardiomyopathy. How do you classify cardiomyopathies? (PA 27.9)
Q. What are the causes, clinical features, salient investigations and treatment of dilated cardiomyopathy (congestive cardiomyopathy)?
Q. Discuss the causes, clinical features, investigations and treatment of restrictive cardiomyopathy (obliterative cardiomyopathy).
Q. Discuss the clinical features, investigations and treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM).
Q. Briefly outline hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (hocm) and idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS).
Q. Write a short note on takotsubo cardiomyopathy.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of acute pericarditis. (PA 27.7)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of pericardial effusion. (PA 27.7)
Q. Give a brief account of tuberculous pericarditis.
Q. Discuss the causes, clinical features, investigations and treatment of cardiac tamponade.
Q. Describe chronic pericarditis.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of chronic constrictive pericarditis.
Q. Describe in brief about Kussmaul’s sign.
Q. How will you differentiate between constrictive pericarditis and restrictive heart disease?
Q. Enumerate the common congenital heart diseases seen in adults. (IM 1.28)
Q. Discuss the clinical features, investigations, complications and management of coarctation of aorta (COA). (IM 1.29)
Q. Explain briefly about Suzman’s sign and radiofemoral delay.
Q. Discuss briefly the haemodynamics, clinical features, investigations, complications and management of persistent ductus arteriosus (patent ductus arteriosus—PDA). (IM 1.29)
Q. Give a brief account of differential cyanosis.
Q. What is reversed differential cyanosis?
Q. Discuss briefly the haemodynamics, clinical features, investigations, complications and management of atrial septal defect (ASD). (IM 1.29)
Q. What is Lutembacher’s syndrome.
Q. Explain briefly about patent foramen ovale?
Q. Discuss briefly the haemodynamics, clinical features, investigations, complications and management of congenital ventricular septal defect (VSD). (IM 1.29)
Q. What is maladie de roger?
Q. What is Eisenmenger’s syndrome? Discuss the clinical presentation of Eisenmenger’s syndrome.
Q. Describe Fallot’s tetralogy or tetralogy of Fallot (TOF).
Q. Explain briefly about Raynaud’s phenomenon. (DR 16.2)
Q. Discuss the clinical presentation and management of Raynaud’s disease.
Q. What are acute aortic syndromes?
Q. Classify aortic aneurysms. What are the common causes of aortic aneurysms?
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations, complications, investigations and management of abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA).
Q. Discuss the clinical features, investigations and management of aneurysm of thoracic aorta.
Q. How do you classify aneurysms of thoracic aorta?
Q. Discuss the predisposing factors, classification, clinical features, investigations and management of aortic dissection.
Q. Discuss the clinical spectrum of cardiovascular syphilis.
Q. Mention the common causes of left ventricular hypertrophy.
Q. Mention the common causes of left ventricular dilatation.
Q. Discuss the differential diagnosis of ejection systolic murmurs (ESMs). (IM 1.16)
Q. Discuss in brief about straight back syndrome (SBS).
Q. Give a brief outline of idiopathic dilatation of pulmonary artery (IDPA).
Q. Discuss the differential diagnosis of pansystolic (holosystolic) murmurs (PSMs) over precordium. (IM 1.16)
Q. Discuss the differential diagnosis of mid-diastolic murmurs (MDMs). (IM 1.16)
Q. Briefly outline left atrial myxoma, Carey–Coombs murmur and Austin Flint murmur.
Q. Enumerate the common causes of continuous murmurs. (IM 1.16)
Q. Write a brief note on innocent murmurs.
Q. Describe briefly about venous hum (jugular venous hum; cervical venous hum).
Q. Explain mammary souffle.
Q. How do you differentiate bronchial asthma from cardiac asthma?
MCQs
8. Diseases of the gastrointestinal system
Q. What are the common causes of loss of appetite (Anorexia)?
Q. What are the common causes of persistent vomiting?
Q. What are the causes of hiccough (or singultus) in an elderly male? Give the symptomatic treatment of hiccough.
Q. Define constipation. What are the common causes of constipation? Discuss briefly about its management.
Q. Enumerate the common causes of acute diarrhoea in the tropics. (IM 16.1)
Q. Enumerate the intestinal causes of chronic diarrhoea. (IM 16.1)
Q. What is food poisoning?
Q. How will you evaluate and manage a patient with acute diarrhoea? (IM 16.11; IM 16.14; IM 16.2)
Q. What are the causes of chronic blood and mucus in the stools? Mention the investigations done in such cases. Stress the importance of stool examination in such a case.
Q. Write a short note on occult blood in the stool.
Q. What are the causes of haematemesis? Discuss the management of a patient with UGI bleeding. (IM 15.1; IM 15.10)
Q. List down the common causes of weight loss.
Q. What are the causes of glossitis?
Q. What are the causes of dysphagia? How will you investigate a case of dysphagia?
Q. Briefly describe about Plummer–Vinson syndrome (Patterson–Kelly syndrome).
Q. Write a short note on sideropenic dysphagia.
Q. What is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GERD; reflux oesophagitis)?
Q. What are the normal mechanisms preventing reflux?
Q. Give the causes, clinical features, investigations, complications and treatment of reflux oesophagitis.
Q. Give a brief account of hiatus hernia.
Q. Discuss the aetiopathogenesis, clinical features and management of acid peptic disease or peptic ulcer disease. (IM 15.15; IM 15.16)
Q. Briefly describe about Helicobacter pylori. (IM 15.15)
Q. Write a short note on dumping syndrome.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, salient investigations and management of Zollinger–Ellison syndrome.
Q. Briefly discuss the causes and differential diagnosis of dyspepsia.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of non-ulcer dyspepsia (functional dyspepsia; nervous dyspepsia; nonorganic dyspepsia).
Q. Discuss the classification, aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of malabsorption syndrome. (IM 16.3)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathology, clinical features, complications, investigations and treatment of coeliac disease (nontropical sprue; gluten-induced enteropathy).
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of tropical sprue (idiopathic tropical malabsorption syndrome).
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of lactose intolerance.
Q. Briefly discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of giardiasis.
Q. What is traveller’s diarrhoea? Briefly explain.
Q. Briefly describe carcinoid tumours and carcinoid syndrome.
Q. Briefly describe gastrointestinal neuroendocrinal tumours.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of ischaemic colitis.
Q. What are the causes of lower gastrointestinal bleeding? (IM 15.1)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of pseudomembranous colitis (antibiotic-associated colitis).
Q. Briefly explain Gardner’s syndrome.
Q. Give a brief account of Peutz–Jeghers syndrome.
Q. Discuss briefly the psychosomatic disorders of the gastrointestinal tract.
Q. Describe the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of irritable bowel syndrome.
Q. Describe the aetiology, pathology, clinical features, complications, differential diagnosis, investigations and treatment of abdominal tuberculosis.
Q. Enumerate the conditions causing ulcers in intestine.
Q. What are the inflammatory bowel diseases?
Q. Give the aetiology, pathology, clinical features, investigations and treatment of ulcerative colitis. (IM 16.16; IM 16.17)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathology, clinical features, investigations and management of Crohn’s disease. (IM 16.16)
Q. Give a brief account of toxic dilatation of colon (toxic megacolon).
Q. What are the complications of inflammatory bowel disease?
Q. Differentiate between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease of the colon. (IM 16.15)
Q. How do you differentiate between Crohn’s disease and intestinal tuberculosis?
Q. Discuss briefly about probiotics, postbiotics and prebiotics.
Q. Discuss acute pancreatitis.
Q. Discuss briefly about chronic pancreatitis.
Q. Describe the features of tropical pancreatitis or fibrocalculous pancreatic diabetes.
Q. How will you differentiate tropical pancreatitis from alcoholic pancreatitis?
Q. Discuss the differential diagnosis of sudden upper abdominal pain in a 40-year-old male.
9. Diseases of the connective tissues and joints
Q. How do you classify polyarthritis? What are the causes of polyarthritis? (IM 7.3, IM 7.8)
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations, diagnosis and management of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). (IM 7.19, IM 7.22, IM 7.23)
Q. Explain rheumatoid factor. (IM 7.15)
Q. What are anticitrullinated protein antibodies? Explain. (IM 7.15)
Q. Write a short note on anticyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody. (IM 7.15)
Q. Discuss COX enzymes and COX-2 inhibitors. (IM 7.20)
Q. What is Felty’s syndrome? Enumerate the clinical manifestations and laboratory abnormalities of Felty’s syndrome.
Q. What is Still’s disease?
Q. Describe adult-onset Still’s disease.
Q. Discuss briefly juvenile idiopathic arthritis or juvenile rheumatoid arthritis or juvenile chronic arthritis and its treatment.
Q. What are the pleuropulmonary manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis?
Q. Discuss the classification, clinical manifestations, diagnosis and management of Sjögren’s syndrome.
Q. Describe keratoconjunctivitis sicca.
Q. What are spondyloarthropathies? (IM 7.6)
Q. What are seronegative spondyloarthropathies (SSA)?
Q. Explain ankylosing spondylitis, rheumatoid spondylitis or Marie–Strumpell disease.
Q. Write a short note on Reiter’s syndrome.
Q. Discuss the clinical features, diagnosis and management of reactive arthritis.
Q. What are the types of psoriatic arthritis? Discuss briefly the clinical manifestations, diagnosis and management of psoriatic arthritis.
Q. Discuss briefly about spondyloarthropathy associated with inflammatory bowel disease.
Q. Describe undifferentiated spondyloarthropathy.
Q. How will you differentiate various spondyloarthropathies?
Q. Discuss briefly symptoms, diagnosis and treatment of Behcet’s disease.
Q. What is Henoch–Schönlein purpura?
Q. Explain anaphylactoid purpura or immunoglobulin A vasculitis.
Q. What are Clutton’s joints?
Q. Describe the articular manifestations of syphilis.
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations, diagnosis and management of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). (IM 7.19, IM 7.22)
Q. List down the various autoantibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
Q. Explain briefly drug-induced lupus.
Q. What are antinuclear antibodies?
Q. Describe extractable nuclear antibodies.
Q. Discuss briefly about various antibodies seen in patients with connective tissue diseases. (IM 7.15)
Q. Describe antiphospholipid antibody syndrome and antiphospholipid antibodies.
Q. Write a short note on scleroderma.
Q. Describe CREST syndrome.
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations, diagnosis and management of systemic sclerosis.
Q. What are inflammatory muscle diseases?
Q. How do you classify polymyositis and dermatomyositis? Discuss the clinical manifestations, diagnosis and management of polymyositis–dermatomyositis.
Q. Define mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).
Q. Write a brief note on polymyalgia rheumatica.
Q. Explain temporal arteritis, cranial arteritis or giant cell arteritis.
Q. Discuss the clinical features, diagnosis and management of classic polyarteritis nodosa (PAN).
Q. Describe microscopic polyangiitis.
Q. Discuss eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Q. Describe Churg–Strauss syndrome.
Q. Write briefly on clinical features, diagnosis and treatment of wegener’s granulomatosis or granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
Q. Define and classify vasculitis.
Q. Discuss briefly the clinical features associated with small vessel vasculitis. What are the laboratory investigations in a case with vasculitis? How do you treat it?
Q. What are antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA)? Discuss their significance.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical manifestations, diagnosis and management of gout.
Q. Give a brief account of the various causes, clinical manifestations, investigations and management of hyperuricaemia. (IM 7.21)
Q. Describe pseudogout, calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) deposition disease or pyrophosphate arthropathy.
10. Acute poisoning and environmental emergencies
Q. Describe briefly the management of a patient who has ingested a poison. (IM21.1)
Q. What are antidotes? (IM21.1)
Q. What are the commonly encountered poisonous snakes in your place? Discuss the clinical manifestations, diagnosis and management of snakebites. (IM20.1, IM20.2, IM20.3, IM20.7)
Q. Explain toxicity caused by scorpion stings. (IM20.8)
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations, diagnosis and management of organophosphorus and carbamate poisoning. (IM 21.3)
Q. Describe the toxicity caused by aluminium phosphide poisoning. (IM 21.3)
Q. Write a short note on the toxicity caused by methanol (methyl alcohol) poisoning. (IM 21.4)
Q. What is salicylate poisoning? Explain its management. (IM21.4)
Q. Describe paracetamol poisoning. (IM21.4)
Q. Describe the toxicity caused by mushroom poisoning.
Q. Discuss the clinical features, laboratory features and treatment in case of oleander poisoning. (IM21.2)
Q. Write briefly on datura poisoning, explaining clinical features and management. (IM21.2)
Q. Briefly discuss corrosive poisoning. (IM21.3)
Q. What do you understand by the terms bioterrorism and chemical terrorism?
Q. What are the common chemical and biological agents used in terrorism?
Q. What are the clues to chemical and biological terrorism?
Q. How will you recognise and treat patients exposed to a chemical terrorist attack?
Q. Discuss physics of radiation.
Q. Describe acute radiation syndrome.
Q. How is body temperature maintained?
Q. Discuss various heat-related illnesses.
Q. What are the various causes of altered level of consciousness and hyperthermia?
Q. Discuss briefly the various causes of hyperthermia.
Q. Define hypothermia. Discuss the clinical features and management of a patient with hypothermia.
11. Nutritional factors in disease
Q. Give a brief account of calcium, vitamin D, parathyroid hormone and calcitonin.
Q. Write briefly on clinical features, investigations, treatment and prevention of rickets. (IM23.3), (PE 12.7)
Q. Describe hypervitaminosis D.
Q. Discuss the role of vitamin D in various diseases.
Q. What is renal bone disease or chronic kidney disease-mineral and bone disorder? Explain.
Q. Describe renal osteodystrophy.
Q. Discuss the causes, clinical features, investigations and treatment in case of osteomalacia. (IM23.3), (OR 7.1)
Q. Discuss briefly the clinical features, investigations and treatment of osteoporosis. (IM24.8), (PH 1.36)
Q. Write a brief note on corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis.
Q. Write a brief note on scurvy. (IM23.3)
Q. Discuss beriberi/vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency. (IM23.3)
Q. Describe wernicke’s encephalopathy. (IM23.3)
Q. What is Korsakoff’s psychosis? (IM23.3)
Q. Write briefly on the clinical features and management of niacin deficiency (pellagra). (IM23.3)
Q. Give a brief account of fluorosis.
Q. Describe angular stomatitis.
Q. Write a short note on definition, causes, risk factors and treatment of obesity. (IM14.1, IM14.11, IM14.13, IM14.14, IM14.2, IM14.5)
MCQs
12. Psychiatry
Q. Give a brief account on psychosis. (PS16.1)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical manifestations and management of schizophrenia. (PS16.1, PS5.1, PS5.2, PS5.3)
Q. Write a short note on positive symptoms of schizophrenia and first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia.
Q. What are affective disorders (mood disorders)? How do you classify them?
Q. What are the clues to bipolar disorders? (PS7.2)
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations and management of depression. (PS16.1, PS6.2)
Q. What are the clinical manifestations of mania? Give a broad outline of the management. (PS7.2, PS7.4)
Q. Define hypomania.
Q. How do you classify anxiety disorders? Give a brief account of treatment of anxiety disorders. (PS8.2, PS8.4)
Q. Describe panic disorder.
Q. Discuss generalised anxiety disorder.
Q. What is post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
Q. How do you classify phobic disorders? Give a brief account of these disorders.
Q. Discuss briefly about obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Q. Write a short note on conversion disorder and dissociation disorder.
Q. Give a brief description of hysteria. (PS10.1, PS10.2, PS10.4)
Q. Explain hysterical amnesia and Briquet’s syndrome (somatisation disorder) in brief.
Q. Describe Munchausen’s syndrome.
Q. Discuss common psychiatric emergencies (PS17.1, PS17.2)
Q. Discuss briefly about anorexia nervosa. (PE 6.6)
Q. Write a short note on Refeeding syndrome.
Q. Write a short note on bulimia nervosa. (PE 6.6)
Q. How do you differentiate between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa?
Q. What are the common symptoms and signs of substance abuse or substance use disorders? List down the investigations required. (PS4.1, PS4.2, PS4.3, PS4.4)
Q. Give a brief account of alcohol dependence.
Q. Give a brief account of alcohol use disorder. (PS4.1, PS4.2, PS4.3, PS4.4, PS4.6)
Q. Discuss alcohol withdrawal in brief.
Q. Describe ethanol content in various alcoholic beverages.
Q. Briefly discuss alcohol intoxication.
Q. Describe smoking and its health risks.
Q. Name the drugs useful to reduce nicotine dependence.
Q. What are the commonly used antipsychotic drugs, their uses and adverse effects? (PS14.5, PS18.1, PS3.10, PS5.5)
Q. What are the commonly used antidepressant drugs? What are their important side effects? What are their other indications? (PS10.6, PS14.5, PS18.1, PS3.10, PS6.4, PS6.6, PS8.6)
Q. Write a short note on lithium carbonate. (PS18.1, PS3.10)
Q. Discuss electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). (PS18.2)
Q. Discuss briefly the common sleep disorders.
MCQs
13. Oncology
Q. What are tumour markers? Classify them and give examples. (IM13.12)
Q. Discuss alpha-foetoprotein briefly.
Q. Discuss briefly the classification of chemotherapeutic agents.
Q. Discuss briefly about mechanisms of action of various chemotherapeutic agents.
Q. What do you understand by adjuvant and neoadjuvant chemotherapy?
Q. Write a short note on immune checkpoint inhibitors.
Q. Write a brief note on chimeric antigen receptor T-cell therapy.
Q. Write a brief note on cyclophosphamide.
Q. Give a brief account of uses and toxicity of methotrexate.
Q. Write a short note on cisplatin.
Q. What is meant by targeted therapy in cancer patients? Explain the various types of targeted therapies.
Q. Write a brief note on the role of positron emission tomography in oncology.
Q. Enumerate emergency conditions related to tumours.
Q. Describe febrile neutropenia.
Q. Write briefly on the clinical features and treatment of tumour lysis syndrome.
Q. What are proto-oncogene, oncogene and tumour suppressor genes?
Q. Describe the genetic basis of transformation of a normal cell into a malignant cell.
Q. Describe apoptosis.
MCQs
14. Genetics and diseases
Q. Write a short note on chromosomes. (AN 73.1)
Q. Describe human genome.
Q. Give a brief account of human genome project.
Q. Give a brief account of proteomics.
Q. Describe proteome.
Q. Explain pharmacogenetics.
Q. Describe pharmacogenomics.
Q. What is precision medicine?
Q. Write a short note on epigenetics.
Q. Discuss the various types of chromosomal aberrations. (AN 75.1)
Q. Discuss the genetic basis of human diseases.
Q. Write a short note on unifactorial, multifactorial and chromosomal disorders.
Q. Describe Down’s syndrome. (PE 32.1)
Q. Briefly outline the clinical features, diagnosis, complications and management of Klinefelter’s syndrome. (PE 32.11, PE 32.12, PE 32.13)
Q. Discuss briefly about Turner’s syndrome. (PE 32.6, 32.7, 32.8, 32.9)
Q. Explain mental retardation. (PS 15.1, 15.2, 15.3, 15.4)
Q. Explain intellectual disability.
Q. Discuss the prevention of genetic diseases.
Q. Give a brief account of gene therapy.
15. Disturbances in water, electrolyte and acid–base balance
Q. Give an account of the normal distribution of water in the body of an average adult male.
Q. Define ions, anions and cations. Name the important anions and cations in the human body.
Q. What are the principal electrolytes in the fluid compartments?
Q. Specify the range of normal values of common electrolytes, pH and osmolality of blood.
Q. What do you understand by anion gap? Enumerate a few conditions associated with increased anion gap.
Q. Describe the causes, clinical features, laboratory features and treatment of volume depletion.
Q. What is hyponatraemia? Discuss its pathophysiology, causes, clinical features and treatment. (IM 22.5)
Q. Give a brief account of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. (IM 22.5)
Q. Describe primary water depletion or hypernatraemia or dehydration. (IM 22.6)
Q. What are the common causes of generalised oedema?
Q. Discuss the mechanism of oedema formation. How will you differentiate between cardiac, renal and hepatic oedema?
Q. Discuss the normal physiology of potassium in the body.
Q. What are the causes of hypokalaemia? Give a brief account of the clinical features, ECG manifestations and management of hypokalaemia. (IM 22.7)
Q. What are the causes of hyperkalaemia? Discuss briefly the clinical features, ECG manifestations and management of hyperkalaemia. (IM 22.8, IM 10.18)
Q. Discuss briefly about physiology of acid–base balance.
Q. Describe the various terms used in the assessment of acid–base status of a patient.
Q. Discuss the causes, clinical features and management of metabolic acidosis. (IM 22.9)
Q. Give a brief account of metabolic alkalosis. (IM 22.10)
Q. Discuss respiratory acidosis. (IM 22.11)
Q. Discuss respiratory alkalosis and its causes. (IM 22.12)
Q. What are primary and compensatory responses to various acid–base disturbances?
Q. How will you evaluate acid–base disturbances? (IM 22.13, IM 10.20)
16. Diseases of the kidneys and genitourinary system
Q. Describe a nephron with the help of a diagram. What are the functions of the kidney?
Q. Write a short note on the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Q. What is meant by azotaemia, oliguria and anuria? Enumerate the causes of oliguria and anuria.
Q. What is meant by polyuria? Enumerate the common causes of polyuria.
Q. What is meant by proteinuria? What is microalbuminuria? What is moderately increased albuminuria? How will you evaluate a patient with proteinuria? (IM 10.8)
Q. Discuss Tamm–Horsfall mucoprotein.
Q. Enumerate common causes of haematuria. How will you clinically localise the site of bleeding?
Q. What are the causes of painless haematuria? How will you evaluate such a patient?
Q. Describe creatinine clearance or renal clearance. (IM 10.17)
Q. Discuss the role of ultrasonography in the diagnosis and management of renal diseases. (IM 10.19)
Q. Give a brief account on acute glomerulonephritis or acute nephritic syndrome.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis, complications and management of acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis.
Q. What is IgA nephropathy? Explain in brief.
Q. Briefly outline the causes, clinical features, investigations and treatment of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
Q. Describe crescentic glomerulonephritis.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and management of nephrotic syndrome.
Q. Discuss the aetiopathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and management of urinary tract infection.
Q. Give a brief account of vesicoureteric reflux.
Q. Discuss the clinical features, investigations and management of acute pyelonephritis.
Q. Give an account of the aetiopathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and management of chronic pyelonephritis (reflux nephropathy).
Q. Write a short note on acute tubulointerstitial nephropathy or nephritis.
Q. Write a short note on analgesic nephropathy.
Q. How do you define and classify chronic kidney disease? What are the risk factors for development of chronic kidney disease? (IM 10.1, IM 10.6)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations, diagnosis and management of chronic kidney disease (CKD) or chronic renal failure (CRF) or chronic kidney failure. (IM10.15, IM10.24, IM10.26, IM10.27, IM10.5, IM10.7, IM10.9)
Q. Describe renal osteodystrophy.
Q. What are the renal replacement therapies available?
Q. Write a note on haemodialysis.
Q. Write a short note on dialysis in critically ill patients.
Q. Write a short note on peritoneal dialysis.
Q. Write a short note on renal transplantation.
Q. Discuss briefly the pathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and management of acute kidney injury. (IM 10.1, 10.15. 10.17, IM 10.2, IM 10.25, IM 10.3, IM 10.4)
Q. Give a brief account of acute kidney disease.
Q. How will you differentiate acute kidney injury/disease from chronic kidney disease? (IM 10.1)
Q. Describe renal tubular acidosis.
Q. Write a short note on polycystic kidney disease.
Q. Describe renal tuberculosis.
Q. Briefly outline the clinical features, investigations and treatment of tuberculosis of the urinary tract.
17. Diseases due to infections
Q. Define pyrexia of unknown origin. Discuss briefly your approach to a case of pyrexia of unknown origin or fever of unknown origin. (IM 4.8)
Q. What are the serological methods in infectious diseases?
Q. Describe various immunoassays.
Q. What are the various molecular methods used in the diagnosis of infectious diseases? (IM 25.8)
Q. Discuss sepsis and septic shock. (IM 4.7)
Q. Discuss early goal-directed therapy for sepsis and septic shock. (IM 4.7)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, complications and prevention of measles (rubella).
Q. Give a brief account of rubella (German measles, ‘3-day measles’), expanded rubella syndrome and congenital rubella or rubella syndrome.
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations, complications and prevention of mumps.
Q. What are the common herpes viruses infecting humans? Enumerate the diseases caused by them.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations, complications and treatment of infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever).
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations, complications and management of chickenpox.
Q. Discuss briefly about human papillomaviruses.
Q. How do you classify arboviruses? Enumerate the major clinical syndromes caused by arboviruses.
Q. Describe classic dengue (Breakbone fever), dengue haemorrhagic fever (DHF) and dengue shock syndrome (DSS). (IM 4.3)
Q. Discuss dengue with and without warning features and describe also severe dengue. (IM 4.3)
Q. Give a brief account of chikungunya. (IM 4.3)
Q. Discuss briefly about Zika virus disease.
Q. How will you differentiate between dengue, chikungunya and Zika disease?
Q. Write a short note on Ebola.
Q. Write a brief note on aetiology, transmission and pathogenesis of severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) disease or coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19).
Q. Describe the clinical features of COVID-19.
Q. Write a short note on multisystem inflammatory syndrome of children (MIS-C).
Q. How will you diagnose COVID-19?
Q. What are the important complications of COVID-19?
Q. How will you manage a patient of COVID-19?
Q. What are the vaccines available for COVID-19?
Q. Give a brief account of Japanese encephalitis.
Q. Describe rabies and its prevention.
Q. Discuss briefly about Nipah virus infection.
Q. Explain briefly about anthrax.
Q. Describe cutaneous anthrax and malignant pustule.
Q. Write a short note on inhalation anthrax and wool-sorter’s disease.
Q. Briefly outline the clinical features, treatment and prophylaxis of smallpox.
Q. Describe briefly about monkeypox.
Q. Write a brief note on plague.
Q. Write a short note on botulism.
Q. What are the clinical uses of botulinum toxin?
Q. Write a short note on tularaemia.
Q. Discuss the clinical manifestations, complications, diagnosis and management of diphtheria.
Q. Describe the aetiology, clinical features, complications, diagnosis and management of whooping cough.
Q. Describe enteric fevers.
Q. Write short notes on typhoid and paratyphoid fevers.
Q. Explain briefly about chronic carrier state in typhoid.
Q. What are the causes of food poisoning? Discuss briefly the clinical manifestations, diagnosis and management of food poisoning.
Q. Give a brief description about the aetiology, clinical presentation, diagnosis and management of acute bacillary dysentery.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, pathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and complications of amoebic dysentery.
Q. Write a short note on amoebic colitis.
Q. How will you differentiate amoebic dysentery from bacillary dysentery on stool examination?
Q. Explain briefly about brucellosis (abortus fever; malta fever; undulant fever and mediterranean fever).
Q. Write a short note on cholera and cholera sicca.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, diagnosis and management of Hansen’s disease (leprosy). (DR 9.1, DR 9.5, DR 9.6)
Q. Describe lepra reactions and their management. (DR 9.4)
Q. Write a short note on erythema nodosum leprosum (ENL). (DR 9.4)
Q. Explain in brief about leptospirosis.
Q. Write a short note on Weil’s syndrome.
Q. Write a brief note on rickettsial diseases.
Q. Describe briefly various rickettsial infections.
Q. Discuss briefly about scrub typhus.
Q. What is candidiasis (moniliasis)?
Q. Discuss briefly about β-lactamases.
Q. Write a short note on New Delhi metallo-β-lactamase (NDM-1).
Q. Explain briefly about community-associated methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA).
Q. Discuss briefly the life cycle of malarial parasite.
Q. Briefly outline stable malaria and unstable malaria.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, epidemiology, clinical features, complications, investigations and management of malaria. (IM 4.6)
Q. Describe tropical splenomegaly syndrome (TSS) or hyperreactive malarial splenomegaly (HMS).
Q. Discuss about amoebic liver abscess.
Q. How do you differentiate amoebic liver abscess from pyogenic liver abscess?
Q. Write a note on leishmaniasis.
Q. Give a brief account of kala-azar or visceral leishmaniasis.
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical manifestations, diagnosis and management of toxoplasmosis.
Q. Describe briefly about congenital toxoplasmosis.
Q. Write a short note on taeniasis solium and cysticercosis.
Q. Briefly explain neurocysticercosis.
Q. Discuss briefly about hydatid disease.
Q. Write a short note on enterobiasis, pinworm infection or threadworm infection.
Q. What are soil-transmitted helminth infections?
Q. Give a brief account of ascariasis or roundworm infection.
Q. Describe briefly about trichuriasis.
Q. Write a short note on whipworm infection.
Q. Describe ancylostomiasis or hookworm disease.
Q. Explain briefly about cutaneous larva migrans (creeping eruption).
Q. Discuss the clinical features, diagnosis and treatment of strongyloidiasis.
Q. Describe briefly about lymphatic filariasis and bancroftian filariasis.
Q. Give a brief account of tropical pulmonary eosinophilia.
Q. Write a short note on gonorrhoea. (DR 10.10)
Q. What is acute gonococcal urethritis? (DR 10.10)
Q. Discuss clinical features and treatment of chancroid. (DR 10.6, DR 10.8)
Q. Explain briefly about bubo.
Q. What are the various infections produced by Chlamydia?
Q. Write a short note on lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV). (DR 10.6, DR 10.8)
Q. Discuss granuloma inguinale (donovanosis). (DR 10.6, DR 10.8)
Q. Give a brief account of syphilis. (DR 10.1, DR 10.3, DR 10.4)
Q. Describe condylomata lata, mucous patches and snail track ulcers.
Q. Give a differential diagnosis of genital ulcers. (DR 10.9)
Q. Tabulate the recommendations on adult immunisation.
18. Endocrine and metabolic diseases
Q. Describe the anatomy of pituitary gland.
Q. Enumerate the pituitary hormones. Give their principal actions.
Q. What are the hypothalamic hormones influencing the anterior pituitary? Give their principal effects. (IM12.3)
Q. Give a brief account of hyposecretion of anterior pituitary (hypopituitarism and panhypopituitarism).
Q. Discuss the differential diagnosis, investigations and management of short stature or dwarfism.
Q. Describe Sheehan’s syndrome.
Q. What is pituitary apoplexy?
Q. What are the common pituitary tumours? Discuss briefly their clinical manifestations, investigations and management.
Q. Describe the clinical features, diagnosis and management of acromegaly.
Q. Discuss prolactinoma and hyperprolactinaemia. Write briefly on their causes, clinical features, investigations and treatment.
Q. Give a brief account of diabetes insipidus. (PM8.4)
Q. What are the various thyroid function tests? Explain. (IM12.3, IM12.4)
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, investigations and management of hyperthyroidism. (IM12.11, IM12.13, IM12.15)
Q. Discuss the pathogenesis, clinical features, investigations and management of Graves’ disease. (IM12.1, IM12.13, IM12.15)
Q. Describe hyperthyroid crisis, thyrotoxic crisis or thyroid storm.
Q. Describe the aetiology, clinical features, diagnosis and management of primary hypothyroidism/hashimoto’s thyroiditis. (IM12.1, IM12.11)
Q. What is myxoedema?
Q. Describe myxoedema coma and myxoedema madness.
Q. Briefly outline the neuropsychiatric manifestations of hypothyroidism.
Q. Give a brief account of sick euthyroid syndrome.
Q. What are the causes of thyroiditis?
Q. Describe subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (de Quervain’s thyroiditis).
Q. What is hashimoto’s thyroiditis? Discuss briefly its investigations and treatment. (IM12.1)
Q. Give a brief account of chronic autoimmune thyroiditis. (IM12.1)
Q. Classify goitre.
Q. Briefly outline the clinical features, investigations and treatment of endemic goitre. (IM12.1)
Q. What is Jod–Basedow phenomenon?
Q. Describe briefly the national iodine deficiency disorders control programme. (IM12.12)
Q. Classify hyperparathyroidism.
Q. Discuss the clinical features, investigations and management of primary hyperparathyroidism.
Q. What are the causes of hypercalcaemia? Outline the management of hypercalcaemia.
Q. Give a brief account of the causes and general management of hypoparathyroidism.
Q. Discuss hypocalcaemia.
Q. What are the causes of tetany? Give the clinical picture and management of tetany.
Q. Explain briefly Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign.
Q. Mention the hormones secreted by the adrenal gland.
Q. Discuss the causes, clinical features, investigations and management of Cushing’s syndrome.
Q. Write a short note on Cushing’s disease.
Q. What is Nelson’s syndrome?
Q. Discuss the aetiology, clinical features, diagnosis and management of primary hyperaldosteronism.
Q. Describe Conn’s syndrome.
Q. Give a brief account of secondary hyperaldosteronism.
Q. How do you classify adrenocortical insufficiency?
Q. Write a short note on Addison’s disease.
Q. Describe adrenal crisis.
Q. What is the present role of steroid therapy?
Q. Discuss the use and side effects of steroids.
Q. What are the complications of corticosteroid therapy?
Q. How can you minimise the side effects of corticosteroid?
Q. Write briefly on Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome.
Q. Give a brief account of phaeochromocytoma.
Q. What is impotence? Discuss briefly.
Q. Describe the classification and causes of diabetes mellitus. (IM11.1)
Q. Briefly outline the pathogenesis of diabetes mellitus. (IM11.2, IM11.3, IM11.4)
Q. What are the clinical features of diabetes mellitus?
Q. Describe potential diabetes and latent diabetes.
Q. Discuss briefly the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. (IM11.11)
Q. Explain what is impaired fasting glucose.
Q. Write briefly on impaired glucose tolerance.
Q. Write briefly on Benedict’s test.
Q. Describe renal glycosuria and marble’s criteria for diagnosis of renal glycosuria.
Q. What is meant by alimentary (lag storage) glycosuria?
Q. Discuss the differential diagnosis of glycosuria.
Q. Give a brief account of oral glucose tolerance test. (IM11.11)
Q. Discuss briefly the dietary management of diabetes mellitus.
Q. Describe medical nutrition therapy in diabetes.
Q. What are oral antidiabetic drugs? Discuss their mechanism of actions and indications. (IM11.16)
Q. Describe briefly the role of insulin in the management of diabetes. (IM11.16)
Q. How do you classify insulins? Give a brief account of the commonly used insulins. (IM11.16)
Q. Discuss briefly about pancreatic transplantation.
Q. Describe the assessment of metabolic control in diabetes. (IM11.11)
Q. Discuss briefly glycosylated (glycated) haemoglobin (HbA1C). (IM11.11)
Q. Enumerate the complications of diabetes. How do you classify them?
Q. Discuss the pathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis, complications and management of diabetic ketoacidosis. (IM11.15, IM11.23, IM11.6, IM11.9)
Q. Briefly outline precipitating factors, clinical features, laboratory findings and management of hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state. (IM11.15, IM11.24, IM11.6, IM11.9)
Q. Describe hyperosmolar nonketotic diabetic coma.
Q. How will you differentiate between diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state? (IM11.9)
Q. Discuss the pathogenesis, clinical features and management of hypoglycaemia. (IM11.14, IM11.15, IM11.22, IM11.6, IM11.9)
Q. Describe Somogyi’s phenomenon and Dawn phenomenon.
Q. Enumerate the differences in coma due to hypoglycaemia and ketoacidosis in type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Q. How does lactic acidosis occur in a diabetic patient? Briefly outline the clinical setting, manifestations, diagnosis and management of lactic acidosis. (IM11.6)
Q. What are the cardiovascular complications of diabetes? (IM11.18)
Q. What are the stages in the development of diabetic nephropathy? (IM11.18)
Q. Describe Kimmelstiel–Wilson lesions.
Q. Discuss briefly diabetic retinopathy. (IM11.18)
Q. Discuss the classification, clinical manifestations and management of diabetic neuropathy. (IM11.18)
Q. What are the dermatological complications of diabetes?
Q. What is gestational diabetes mellitus? How will you diagnose it?
Q. Discuss the significance and management of gestational diabetes mellitus.
Q. Describe the O’Sullivan’s criteria for the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus.
Q. Describe carpenter and coustan criteria for the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus.
Q. Give a brief account of metabolic syndrome.
Q. Discuss briefly clinical diagnosis, risks and treatment of insulin resistance syndrome (Syndrome X).
Q. Write a short note on insulin resistance.
Q. Write a short note on lipodystrophy.
Q. Discuss the structure of lipoproteins and their transport in body. (IM2.3)
Q. Discuss hyperlipidaemias (or dyslipidaemias), their causes and drugs used in their management. (IM2.18)
Q. Classify hyperlipidaemias.
Q. Discuss the guidelines on the use of statins.
Q. Discuss the guidelines on management of hypercholesterolaemia.
19. Geriatrics
Q. Describe briefly epidemiology of the elderly population.
Q. Define geriatric medicine and gerontology.
Q. Discuss the process of ageing.
Q. Describe the physiological changes which occur in the elderly persons.
Q. Briefly describe some of the atypical manifestations of common diseases in elderly individuals.
Q. Discuss comprehensive geriatric assessment. (IM24.2)
Q. What is geriatric syndrome?
Q. Define diagnostic criteria of dementia or major neurocognitive disorder.
Q. Discuss briefly common causes of dementia or major neurocognitive disorder in older individuals. (IM24.4)
Q. Write a short note on normal pressure hydrocephalus.
Q. Write a short note on depression in an older person. (IM24.5)
Q. Describe briefly urinary incontinence in the elderly.
Q. Define overactive bladder.
Q. Describe epidemiology, risk factors, consequences, evaluation and management of falls in the elderly. (IM24.13)
Q. Discuss frailty in the elderly.
Q. Write a short note of failure to thrive in the elderly.
Q. Write a short note on drug prescription in the elderly.
Q. Write a short note on polypharmacy.
Q. Write a short note on nutritional assessment in an older person. (IM24.22)
Q. Describe elder abuse. (IM24.19)
Q. Discuss briefly about therapies to delay the process of ageing.
20. Clinical pharmacology
Q. Describe adverse drug reactions. (PH 1.7)
Q. Write a short note on pharmacovigilance in India.
Q. Discuss drug interactions. (PH 1.8)
Q. Write a brief note on prescribing medications in patients with liver disease.
Q. How will you prescribe medications in patients with kidney disease?
Q. Discuss use of drugs in pregnancy.
Q. Discuss various types of study designs in clinical practice.
Q. What are the levels of clinical evidence?
Q. Write a brief note on various terms used in describing a clinical study.
Q. What are the phases of clinical trials? Briefly define them.
Q. Write a short note on consort.
Index

Life Sciences

Physical Sciences & Engineering

Social Sciences & Humanities

Health

Medicine: Prep Manual for Undergraduates

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